Modules 1 – 3: Basic
Network Connectivity and Communications Exam Answers
1.
Match the requirements of a reliable network
with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)
2.
An employee at a branch office is creating a
quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access
confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What
type of network would the employee access?
a.
an intranet
b.
the Internet
c.
an extranet
d.
a local area network
3.
Which statement describes the use of powerline
networking technology?
a.
New “smart” electrical cabling is
used to extend an existing home LAN.
b.
A home LAN is installed without the
use of physical cabling.
c.
A device connects to an existing home LAN
using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.
d.
Wireless access points use
powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.
4.
A networking technician is working on the
wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the
wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other
patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this
situation?
a.
fault tolerance
b.
scalability
c.
security
d.
Quality of Service (QoS)
e.
reliability
5.
Match each characteristic to its corresponding
Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are used.)
a.
CCNA1 v7 ITN – Basic Network
Connectivity and Communications Exam Answers 002
6.
What two criteria are used to help select a
network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)
a.
the types of data that need to be
prioritized
b.
the cost of the end devices utilized
in the network
c.
the distance the selected medium can
successfully carry a signal
d.
the number of intermediate devices
installed in the network
e.
the environment where the selected medium
is to be installed
7.
What type of network traffic requires QoS?
a.
email
b.
on-line purchasing
c.
video conferencing
d.
wiki
8.
A user is implementing security on a small
office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security
requirements for this network? (Choose two.)
a.
implementing a firewall
b.
installing a wireless network
c.
installing antivirus software
d.
implementing an intrusion detection
system
e.
adding a dedicated intrusion
prevention device
9.
Passwords can be used to restrict access to
all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be
protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
a.
VTY interface
b.
console interface
c.
Ethernet interface
d.
boot IOS mode
e.
privileged EXEC mode
f.
router configuration mode
10. Which interface allows
remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
a.
the AUX interface
b.
the console port interface
c.
the switch virtual interface
d.
the first Ethernet port interface
11. What function does
pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
a.
It aborts the current command and
returns to configuration mode.
b.
It exits configuration mode and
returns to user EXEC mode.
c.
It moves the cursor to the beginning
of the next line.
d.
It completes the remainder of a partially
typed word in a command.
12. While trying to solve
a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router
configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved.
What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the
file in NVRAM?
a.
Issue the reload command without saving
the running configuration.
b.
Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot
the device.
c.
Close and reopen the terminal
emulation software.
d.
Issue the copy startup-config
running-config command.
13. An administrator uses
the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command.
What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
a.
to restart the ping process
b.
to interrupt the ping process
c.
to exit to a different configuration
mode
d.
to allow the user to complete the
command
14. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the
administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which
password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
b.
letmein
c.
secretin
d.
lineconin
e.
linevtyin
15. A technician
configures a switch with these commands:
a.
SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown
b.
What is the technician configuring?
c.
Telnet access
d.
SVI
e.
password encryption
f.
physical switchport access
16. Which command or key
combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command
hierarchy?
a.
end
b.
exit
c.
Ctrl-Z
d.
Ctrl-C
17. What are two
characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
a.
RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
b.
The configuration that is actively
running on the device is stored in RAM.
c.
The contents of RAM are lost during a
power cycle.
d.
RAM is a component in Cisco switches
but not in Cisco routers.
e.
RAM is able to store multiple
versions of IOS and configuration files.
18. Which two host names
follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose
two.)
a.
Branch2!
b.
RM-3-Switch-2A4
c.
Floor(15)
d.
HO Floor 17
e.
SwBranch799
19. How is SSH different
from Telnet?
a.
SSH makes connections over the
network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.
b.
SSH provides security to remote sessions
by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered
insecure and sends messages in plaintext.
c.
SSH requires the use of the PuTTY
terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices
through the use of Telnet.
d.
SSH must be configured over an active
network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a
console connection.
20. An administrator is
configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the
administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the
mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are
used.)
21. What are three
characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
a.
It is designed as a security protocol
to protect switch ports.
b.
It is not associated with any physical
interface on a switch.
c.
It is a special interface that allows
connectivity by different types of media.
d.
It is required to allow connectivity
by any device at any location.
e.
It provides a means to remotely manage a
switch.
f.
It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
22. What command is used
to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including the status of the
interfaces and a configured IP address?
a.
ipconfig
b.
ping
c.
traceroute
d.
show ip interface brief
23. Match the description
with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)
24. Match the definitions
to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)
25. In the show
running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by
running-config?
a.
the command
b.
a keyword
c.
a variable
d.
a prompt
26. After making
configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy
running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this
command?
a.
The new configuration will be stored
in flash memory.
b.
The new configuration will be loaded if
the switch is restarted.
c.
The current IOS file will be replaced
with the newly configured file.
d.
The configuration changes will be
removed and the original configuration will be restored.
27. What command will
prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a
configuration file?
a.
(config)# enable password secret
b.
(config)# enable secret
Secret_Password
c.
(config-line)# password secret
d.
(config)# service password-encryption
e.
(config)# enable secret
Encrypted_Password
28. A network
administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the
configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
a.
This command encrypts passwords as
they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
b.
This command prevents someone from
viewing the running configuration passwords.
c.
This command enables a strong
encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
d.
This command automatically encrypts
passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.
e.
This command provides an exclusive
encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router
maintenance.
29. What method can be
used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much
data is being sent too quickly?
a.
encapsulation
b.
flow control
c.
access method
d.
response timeout
30. Which statement
accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data
to the network?
a.
Data is sent from the internet layer
to the network access layer.
b.
Packets are sent from the network
access layer to the transport layer.
c.
Segments are sent from the transport
layer to the internet layer.
d.
Frames are sent from the network
access layer to the internet layer.
31. What three application
layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
a.
ARP
b.
DHCP
c.
DNS
d.
FTP
e.
NAT
f.
PPP
32. Match the description
to the organization. (Not all options are used.)
33. Which name is assigned
to the transport layer PDU?
a.
bits
b.
data
c.
frame
d.
packet
e.
segment
34. When IPv4 addressing is
manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration
identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?
a.
DNS server address
b.
subnet mask
c.
default gateway
d.
DHCP server address
35. What process involves
placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
a.
encapsulation
b.
encoding
c.
segmentation
d.
flow control
36. What layer is
responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
a.
internet
b.
transport
c.
network access
d.
session
37. For the TCP/IP
protocol suite, what is the correct order of events when a Telnet message is
being prepared to be sent over the network?
38. Which PDU format is
used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?
a.
file
b.
frame
c.
packet
d.
segment
39. Refer to the exhibit.
ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two statements correctly identify
the addressing that ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
b.
ServerB will generate a packet with
the destination IP address of RouterB.
c.
ServerB will generate a frame with
the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
d.
ServerB will generate a packet with
the destination IP address of RouterA.
e.
ServerB will generate a frame with the
destination MAC address of RouterB.
f.
ServerB will generate a packet with the
destination IP address of HostA.
g.
ServerB will generate a frame with
the destination MAC address of RouterA.
40. Which method allows a
computer to react accordingly when it requests data from a server and the
server takes too long to respond?
a.
encapsulation
b.
flow control
c.
access method
d.
response timeout
41. A web client is
receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of
the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to
decode the received transmission?
a.
Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
b.
HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
c.
Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
d.
HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
42. Which two OSI model
layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model?
(Choose two.)
a.
data link
b.
network
c.
physical
d.
session
e.
transport
43. At which layer of the
OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?
a.
physical layer
b.
data link layer
c.
network layer
d.
transport layer
44. What is a
characteristic of multicast messages?
a.
They are sent to a select group of hosts.
b.
They are sent to all hosts on a
network.
c.
They must be acknowledged.
d.
They are sent to a single
destination.
45. Which statement is
correct about network protocols?
a.
Network protocols define the type of
hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
b.
They define how messages are exchanged
between the source and the destination.
c.
They all function in the network
access layer of TCP/IP.
d.
They are only required for exchange
of messages between devices on remote networks.
46. What is an advantage
of network devices using open standard protocols?
a.
Network communications is confined to
data transfers between devices from the same vendor.
b.
A client host and a server running
different operating systems can successfully exchange data.
c.
Internet access can be controlled by
a single ISP in each market.
d.
Competition and innovation are
limited to specific types of products.
47. Which device performs
the function of determining the path that messages should take through
internetworks?
a.
a router
b.
a firewall
c.
a web server
d.
a DSL modem
48. Open the PT Activity.
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
a.
What is the IP address of the switch virtual
interface (SVI) on Switch0?
b.
192.168.5.10
c.
192.168.10.5
d.
192.168.10.1
e.
192.168.5.0
49. Why would a Layer 2
switch need an IP address?
a.
to enable the switch to send
broadcast frames to attached PCs
b.
to enable the switch to function as a
default gateway
c.
to enable the switch to be managed
remotely
d.
to enable the switch to receive
frames from attached PCs
50. Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error
message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
b.
CCNA1 v7 ITN – Basic Network
Connectivity and Communications Exam Answers 03
c.
The entire command, configure
terminal, must be used.
d.
The administrator is already in
global configuration mode.
e.
The administrator must first enter
privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
f.
The administrator must connect via
the console port to access global configuration mode.
51. What term describes a
network owned by one organization that provides safe and secure access to
individuals who work for a different organization?
a.
extranet
b.
cloud
c.
BYOD
d.
quality of service
52. What term describes
storing personal files on servers over the internet to provide access anywhere,
anytime, and on any device?
a.
cloud
b.
BYOD
c.
quality of service
d.
converged network
53. What term describes a
network where one computer can be both client and server?
a.
peer-to-peer
b.
cloud
c.
BYOD
d.
quality of service
54. What term describes a
type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote
office?
a.
SOHO network
b.
BYOD
c.
quality of service
d.
converged network
55. What term describes a
computing model where server software runs on dedicated computers?
a.
client/server
b.
internet
c.
intranet
d.
extranet
56. What term describes a
type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote
office?
a.
SOHO network
b.
internet
c.
intranet
d.
extranet
57. What term describes a
technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN using an electrical
outlet?
a.
powerline networking
b.
internet
c.
intranet
d.
extranet
58. What term describes a
policy that allows network devices to manage the flow of data to give priority
to voice and video?
a.
quality of service
b.
internet
c.
intranet
d.
extranet
59. What term describes a
private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an organization?
a.
intranet
b.
internet
c.
extranet
d.
peer-to-peer
60. What term describes
the ability to use personal devices across a business or campus network?
a.
BYOD
b.
internet
c.
intranet
d.
extranet
61. At which OSI layer is
a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
network layer
b.
data link layer
c.
transport layer
d.
application layer
62. At which OSI layer is
a destination port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
transport layer
b.
data link layer
c.
network layer
d.
application layer
63. At which OSI layer is
data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
application layer
b.
data link layer
c.
network layer
d.
transport layer
64. At which OSI layer is
a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
network layer
b.
data link layer
c.
application layer
d.
presentation layer
65. At which OSI layer is
data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
application layer
b.
transport layer
c.
network layer
d.
presentation layer
66. At which OSI layer is
a destination IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
network layer
b.
application layer
c.
transport layer
d.
presentation layer
67. At which OSI layer is
a source MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
data link layer
b.
application layer
c.
transport layer
d.
presentation layer
68. At which OSI layer is
a source port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
transport layer
b.
application layer
c.
network layer
d.
presentation layer
69. At which OSI layer is
a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
data link layer
b.
transport layer
c.
application layer
d.
network layer
70. At which OSI layer is
a source port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a.
transport layer
b.
network layer
c.
application layer
d.
data link layer
